NZ IFR Rules - PT2 | Quiz - Pilot George, L3 Airline Academy (CTC Aviation) Cadet Blog

While I have tried to ensure the information in this quiz is accurate, it is your own responsibility to check it against your airline / manufacturer manuals. With that said, if you spot any obvious errors then please let me know the question number and I'll aim to put it right!

Q149 ATS must be informed of delays to a flight plan in excess of:

60 minutes

10 minutes

20 minutes

30 minutes

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q148 According to CAR Part 91 Subpart E, a pilot of a non-turbine aircraft must ensure there is adequate fuel to complete the flight (with or without an alternate) and then:

fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the intended / alternate aerodrome

fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the intended / alternate aerodrome

fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the intended / alternate aerodrome

fly for 15 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the intended / alternate aerodrome

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q116 When considering a timed instrument approach procedure which displays timings relevant to the fastest category of aircraft at that aerodrome, a 2 minute outbound leg may be adjusted to a length of ____ in a Category B aircraft.

4 min

2.5 min

3 min

4.5 min

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q150 According to CAR Part 91 Subpart E, the reduced takeoff minima are:

0ft cloud ceiling and visibility ≥ 500m

50ft cloud ceiling and visibility ≥ 500m

50ft cloud ceiling and visibility ≥ 800m

0ft cloud ceiling and visibility ≥ 800 m

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q11 According to ENR 1.5 and when not been explicitly listed for that aerodrome in AD2, what is the takeoff minima?

1200ft ceiling, 1500m vis

300ft ceiling, 1500m vis

250ft ceiling, 1000m vis

300ft ceiling, 800m vis

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q153 You suffer a communications failure during a published instrument departure, you shall squawk 7600 and:

Track towards the fix applicable for the approach in use and enter the hold.

If visual then the visual circuit to land.

Continue as per the published procedure.

Maintain the departure track, or last assigned heading for a period of 2 minutes, then resume own navigation.

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q152 You suffer a communications failure in IMC and are uncertain of regaining VMC anytime soon. According to the Pink Pages you must:

Squawk 7600 and turn back to last location VMC conditions were known.

Squawk 7600, descend out of controlled airspace and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

Squawk 7600 and continue to fly the published flight plan.

Squawk 7600 and enter an en-route hold.

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q17 By day, what minima must be met for ATC to permit entry into the visual circuit?

2000ft ceiling, 5km vis

1200ft ceiling, 5km vis

2000ft ceiling, 8km vis

1200ft ceiling, 2km vis

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q118 Category B Final Approach Speeds

85 - 130

160 - 240

70 - 100

90 - 150

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q145 According to L3 SOPs, how long before TOD may you configure for an approach?

0.1 nm

0.4 nm

0.3 nm

0.2 nm

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q151 You are the pilot of an aircraft following an IFR flight plan. You suffer a communication failure but are able to maintain VMC. As per the pink pages you shall squawk 7600 and:

Switch to VFR and continue your flight taking care to remain clear of controlled airspace.

Continue in VMC, land at the nearest suitable airfield and inform ATS via the most expeditious route.

Continue to your destination maintaining VMC, and make a visual approach.

Continue, controllers will now be aware of your issue and move other aircraft out of your way.

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q123 What formula can be used to calculate a rate of climb appropriate to a departure procedure:

(VSI / Groundspeed) * 1.013

Gradient Percentage x Groundspeed x 1.013

VSI * 60

Groundspeed x 5

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q14 According to CAR Part 91 Subpart E, an alternate aerodrome is not required if, at the time of submitting the flight plan, the meteorological forecasts indicate that minima can be met for at least ____ before and after your estimated time of arrival.

15 minutes

45 minutes

30 minutes

60 minutes

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q154 If a communication failure occurs while your aircraft is being operated in a holding pattern and the weather is below instrument approach minima or the aerodrome is closed for any reason you shall:

Continue to hold until your expected diversion time, fly to your alternate, conduct an approach there.

Continue to hold in the hope conditions improve.

Descend in the hold and continue to make missed approaches until your expected arrival time.

Conduct an approach anyway.

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q125 What is the hold speed for a category B aircraft? (14,000ft and below)

190 kts

240 kts

190 kts

170 kts

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q121 Airspace containment is based on a gradient of?

3.3%

5.5%

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q124 According to L3 SOPs, what minima must you have to conduct an ILS approach?

Landing minima, plus 500m RVR

Landing minima, plus 800m RVR

Landing minima, plus 550m RVR

Landing minima, plus 300m RVR

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q117 When considering a timed instrument approach procedure which displays timings relevant to the fastest category of aircraft at that aerodrome, a 3 minute outbound leg may be adjusted to a length of ____ in a Category B aircraft.

3 min

2 min

2.5 min

4 min

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q144 Unless otherwise specified, what in the minimum height to which turns permitted during an IFR departure?

400 ft

500 ft

200 ft

300 ft

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q19 When flying a circling approach, what is the typical obstacle protection radii for a Category B aircraft?

2.00 nm

2.66 nm

1.68 nm

1.66 nm

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q18 By night, what minima must be met for ATC to permit entry into the visual circuit?

2000ft ceiling, 5km vis

2000ft ceiling, 8km vis

1200ft ceiling, 5km vis

1200ft ceiling, 2km vis

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q122 When and by how much are pilots allowed to deviate from the centreline of an RNP route?

Anytime and by any amount they wish.

Always, but by no more than 1/2 scale deflection.

Never.

Only by ATC or under emergency conditions.

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q147 For a non-precision approach, an aerodrome must not be listed as an alternate aerodrome unless the weather forecast at the time of submitting the flight plan indicates that, at the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling and visibility at that aerodrome will be at or above the following weather minima:

ceiling of 800 ft or 200 ft above MDA, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 4000 m or 1500 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

ceiling of 400 ft or 200 ft above MDA, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 4000 m or 1500 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

ceiling of 400 ft or 250 ft above MDA, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 4000 m or 1500 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

ceiling of 800 ft or 250 ft above MDA, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 4000 m or 1500 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q126 When utilising a racetrack procedure, your entry track must be within how many degrees?

10°

30°

20°

15°

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q120 When may ATC clear you for descent via an instrument procedure - without visual reference?

At least 5000ft above the cloud base for the minima of that approach; ≥ 5km vis

At least 1000ft above the cloud base for the minima of that approach; ≥ 8km vis

At least 1000ft above the cloud base for the minima of that approach; ≥ 5km vis

At least 500ft above the cloud base for the minima of that approach; ≥ 8km vis

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q16 According to ENR 1.5-27, what is the Vat for a category B aircraft?

91 kts - 120 kts

85 kts - 135 kts

< 91 kts

70 kts - 100 kts

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q146 For a precision approach, an aerodrome must not be listed as an alternate aerodrome unless the weather forecast at the time of submitting the flight plan indicates that, at the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling and visibility at that aerodrome will be at or above the following weather minima:

Ceiling of 800 ft or 200 ft above DA/DH, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 3000 m or 1000 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

Ceiling of 400 ft or 100 ft above DA/DH, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 3000 m or 1000 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

Ceiling of 200 ft or 50 ft above DA/DH, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 3000 m or 1000 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

Ceiling of 600 ft or 200 ft above DA/DH, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 3000 m or 1000 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q119 When using remote QNH, what adjustment must be made to the MDA(H)?

+5ft per 1NM over 5NM

+5ft per 3NM over 3NM

+3ft per 3NM over 5NM

+3ft per 1NM over 3NM

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q112 What is the max speed for visual manoeuvring (circling) in a Category B aircraft?

165

145

125

135

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q13 During a SID, what is the maximum turning speed in a category B aircraft?

145 kts

165 kts

185 kts

125 kts

Correct!

Incorrect!

Q115 Range of Speeds for Initial Approach in Category B?

60 - 90

70 - 100

120 - 180

85 - 130

Correct!

Incorrect!

Quiz: NZ IFR Rules - PT2